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She was too nervous to open the door. Mel you do it, while I sprawl myself on the couch and pose so he sees my sitting elegantly when he enters, like Elizabeth Taylor in Cleopatra. I want to look regal.
She laughed and walked towards the door, about to open it before Jude stopped her. No, stop! Dont do it! On second thoughts, you get in the kitchen and I will open the door. I dont want him seeing your face first, falling in love and forgetting about me.
She laughed and said Are you sure? Because if he is looking to get married and sees me, being the beautiful thing I am, getting a fresh dinner out of the oven while wearing this rather sexy apron, he might think all his dreams have come true and propose.
Jude screwed up her face in disagreement. Your apron has pictures of bananas on it, trust me, its not sexy but yeah, I get your point. Ok, go hide in the bathroom or something.
Mel walked away and warned her Ok, quickly though. He is waiting. He might get impatient and think youre not here and just leave.
He knocked a second time, as if he heard what was said, although they did their best to whisper. Jude went to the door, quickly checked her black and yellow printed hijab in the mirror and when she felt she looked semi-respectable, opened the door and faced him.
Hi Judie. I brought you flowers. They are for you he said, stating the obvious as he whipped out some gorgeous species of flowers that she didnt know the name of, but did recognise.
Aw for me? Thanks. Leave them at the doorstep, thanks. Bye. She tried to joke, while pretending to close the door in his face.
His smile dropped and just as she thought he was about to go home and stick needles and pins into a voodoo doll replica of her; his smile came back and he said t make jokes. No one is funny more than me. You are no competition for my brain. They both laughed as she let him in.
He passed her the pink and yellow flowers, while he quickly left a peck on her cheek. Her cheeks flushed red with embarrassment, her right cheek burned where he quickly kissed her.
She felt very unsure of it. As innocent as the act was, it just wasn't what was done in their religion. She had to be honest with herself and admit that they weren't even supposed to be meeting like this. It was supposed to be done with a guardian, a chaperone of some kind to oversee the whole meeting. With no Muslim father or older family male to act on her behalf, she threw Mel into the role. She felt a stab of religious guilt attack her conscious and she didn't like it.
Mel came out of her room with a very convincing Oh you are here! and greeted Khalid. They said their greetings from a safe, respectable distance and that was it. Mel went to the kitchen to get some drinks while Jude sat on the couch next to him, a metre of space between them. They smiled at each other and both looked away at the same time, which made them laugh shyly as they mirrored each others movements. Just as she was about to open her mouth again and try to talk, Mel called her from the kitchen, Sorry I cant find the glasses can you help me Jude? She knew it was a fake call for help, but went nonetheless, knowing that it was code for "I have something to say, but not in front of the man on your couch".
So? What do ya think? Jude asked.
I think I would like one. He is too cute she said in a whisper, while softly punching her arm. Jude laughed softly, smiled and asked So, two thumbs up?
Mel winked at her and replied Honey, even my toes are up to which they both looked down to see Mel curl her toes. Jude laughed, perhaps too loudly. Mel put her finger to her lips and then pointed to the lounge room and sent her back to the guest waiting on the couch.
She sat back down on the opposing arm chair while they spoke about regular mundane things, nothing with much significance. Usually for Jude it would have been as interesting as watching paint dry, but she was so enthused to find out what would come out of his mouth next.
The conversation was broken up when she went to set the table that was situated in the same room, just behind the couch. The whole time he just sat there, intently watching her. It made her nervous, like she was on trial. She hated being watched. Jude put the lasagne on the table and looked up to find him still staring.
she asked, nervously laughing. He didnt say anything, just sat there smiling at her. Seriously, what? Why do you keep looking at me? You are putting me off. You are making me feel nervous.Am I? he replied. Sorry, I will stop looking
He didnt. He continued to stare as she made her way to the kitchen, with her back to him, she stated I can still feel you looking. You are not doing a good job of not looking. Thats a fail!
He laughed to himself and muttered m not crazy! she exclaimed, as she turned around to face him.
"Oh, so you speak some Arabic?" he said, surprised.
"Only the bad words" she answered while winking as she left the room.
Once in the kitchen she met up with Mel and rolled her eyes. I have no idea what Im doing, Mel.Just take out the salad and fill your mouth with food, so you dont say something stupid and scare him off.
Mel thrust the bowl of salad into her hands and grabbed the drinks as they both went back into the lounge room and sat down at the table, where Khalid had already made himself comfortable, waiting at the head of the table.
Self Importance much? Jude grinned at him.
What? I dont know what you mean he stated honestly.
You made yourself the head of the table she said, pointing to his general direction.
My head? My head isnt on the table. He touched his head with his right hand, obviously confused at the expression she had used.
t worry she said, as she waved the comment off.
The two women smirked and passed a look as they passed the food. They filled their plates in silence, until Khalid broke it.
Oh head of the table! I understand now. Yes, I sit here because I am the man.
He was dead serious. Mel burst out laughing at his slightly chauvinistic statement, nearly spraying water all over the food and said to him re kidding right?
He replied rather seriously with a look of confusion spread over his face, No, I dont have kids.
He pointed to the Lasagne and asked before they could comment And what is this? Jude explained to him the concept of Lasagne and how it was layer after layer of delicious goodness. A look of recognition appeared on his face and he exclaimed Beshamel! You make me beshamel!Umm, yeah, I did. Thats the white sauce in it Jude answered.
He argued No you make me beshamel, still smiling. He explained to her that in his country they have the same dish, but make it with small pasta pieces instead of pasta sheets and they call the whole thing Makarona Beshamel. He ate his food, obviously pleased with it on both his first, second and third helping. The man has never been fed muttered Mel under her breath to Jude, looking up and smiling at Khalid, who didnt hear what she had said. Jude tried to laugh, but with her mouth closed, full with food, the laughter escaped through her nose in short, sharp noises.
Over dinner they discussed his past, what he was doing in Australia and elaborated a little bit on their own personal lives. Khalids story started with him being in Australia to study for his Masters Degree in I.T, but needed to pass English exams before they would let him in. His English wasn't that bad, just needed a few tweaks here and there.
So when you finish your Masters, what then? Will you work here? Mel asked him, before she took another sip of water.
No, I will go back to my country, or maybe Dubai to work and make a house with my wife he answered in a matter of fact manner.
Judes smile dropped and Mel turned to looked to her as if to say What the?! Jude didnt know what to say. She just felt like an idiot sitting there and having fussed so much over him, without checking out his marital background first. She didnt dare open her mouth, she was too disappointed, and so she just focused on her plate as she wrestled with the sudden feeling of being slapped in the face.
Luckily Mel stepped in and questioned him. Your wife? So you are married?No, not yet, but I will be soon. he said in all seriousness.
Mel checked to see Judes reaction, but she didnt notice. She was busy burning holes into her plate with her eyes, secretly hoping she would choke on her food. She imagined some short, pretty Egyptian girl waiting for him back home. For some reason images of Haife Wahbe flicked through her mind, making her suddenly wanting to stab the man that sat on the other side of the table to her. She knew that she had to get away from the table, if only for a minute to attain composure. She grabbed the empty water jug as her sorry excuse and left the room, filling it up at the kitchen sink, trying to make sense of it all.
Questions were running through her mind. She wondered what he wanted then, if he already had a girl back home. It couldnt be friendship. It was obvious from what he said that he didnt need a wife, but then why all the staring? The secret looks passed between them? The flirting? The kiss on the cheek when he arrived? Had she imagined all of it? No maybe I misread it she questioned herself. She stood there, utterly confused and embarrassed, her body temperature rising in anger at herself, even though the water that overflowed over the rim of the glass water jug was cool as it ran over her hand.
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Gaps In Mental Health Screenings Still Haunt Military
Little Progress In Expanding Screenings
By MATTHEW KAUFFMAN | The Hartford Courant
May 12, 2009
Chad Barrett had attempted suicide and was suffering post-traumatic stress disorder by the time his unit prepared for a third combat tour in Iraq. A psychiatrist had recommended the staff sergeant be separated from the military for his own good, but Barrett wanted to stay with his Army colleagues.
And when it came time for deployment, Army commanders were happy to oblige.
Barrett, who had spent a dozen years in the Army, shipped out in December 2007 with prescription bottles of Klonopin for anxiety, Pamelor for depression and migraines, and Lunesta and Ambien for sleep problems. But the drugs did not control his despair and mood swings. And less than two months after arriving in Iraq, Barrett popped open some of the bottles and committed suicide by overdose. He was 35.
"I understand that they have a mission, and mission comes first. I completely get that," Barrett's widow, Shelby Barrett, said from her home near Fort Carson in Colorado. "But they took a soldier who was not mentally capable of doing the things that he thought he was capable of doing. And I think they took him just as another boot on the ground. They needed their numbers."
Related links
Chad Barrett Photos
2006 Courant Investigation: Mentally Unfit To Fight
U.S. Soldier In Iraq Kills 5 Comrades At Stress Clinic
Mental Health Referrals Graphic
Suicides Among Soldiers Graphic
More than two years ago, Congress ordered the military to implement tighter psychiatric screening for combat troops to keep mentally troubled service members out of the war zone.
But new pre-deployment data obtained by The Courant indicate there are still gaps in the military's screening policies, and that the military is still arranging professional mental health evaluations for only a tiny fraction of the troops it is sending into battle.
Pre-deployment screening records show that in 2008 and early 2009, barely more than 1 percent of deploying troops were referred to a mental health professional as part of their preparations. Even among troops who acknowledged seeking mental health care in the year before deploying, nearly nine out of 10 were deemed mentally fit without seeing a mental health professional.
Service members who acknowledge past mental health care are typically interviewed by medical technicians who decide if a mental health referral is warranted. After stories in The Courant in 2006 detailing deficiencies in mental health screening and treatment for combat troops, Congress instructed the military to establish specific guidelines for determining when those referrals should be made.
But a Defense Department spokesman acknowledged last week that specific guidelines were never developed.
The number of mental health referrals is little changed from 2007, even as the military grapples with a steady increase in depression and stress among combat troops. Just Monday, an American soldier was in custody after killing five fellow troops at Baghdad's Camp Liberty in a shooting at a military clinic for treating stress.
Since the invasion of Afghanistan in 2001, more than 210 service members have killed themselves while serving in Iraq and Afghanistan, and the suicide rate has risen significantly since the beginning of those campaigns. Army-wide, there have been 64 confirmed or suspected suicides in the first four months of this year, with the suicide rate among soldiers now exceeding the demographically adjusted civilian rate.
Undermining Security?
Paul Sullivan, executive director of Veterans for Common Sense, said he believes inadequate pre-deployment screening is partly to blame for the jump in mental illness and suicides. The military's formal pre-deployment mental health assessment consists of a single question on a survey that asks service members if they have sought care or counseling for their mental health in the previous year.
A 1997 federal law required the military to assess the mental health of all deploying service members, and Sullivan said that should mean a face-to-face evaluation particularly for the 40 percent of service members who have deployed more than once.
"Until DOD [Department of Defense] is in full compliance with that law, DOD is harming our service members and they are undermining our national security," Sullivan said. "And the military leadership bears personal responsibility for continuing the practice of sending unfit soldiers to war."
Military officials have acknowledged that repeated deployments and the high "operational tempo" of the wars have taken a toll on soldiers' mental well-being. But they defend their mental health screening, saying the pre-deployment preparations now include a check of each service member's medical records, and that annual health assessments offer an opportunity to discover mental health issues.
"The pre-deployment health assessment is then just an opportunity to check if anything new has come up since their last assessment or since their last health care visit," said Dr. Michael E. Kilpatrick, director of strategic communications for the Military Health System.
Military officials also say pre-deployment screening is only one tool used to build a mentally healthy force.
The Pentagon has launched numerous programs to build mental "resiliency" among troops, combat the stigma associated with mental health care and increase access to care. Earlier this year, for example, Army leaders proposed scrapping a policy that required commanding officers to be notified when one of their soldiers sought counseling.
The military has also stepped up training throughout the chain of command to urge service members to act when they see suicidal tendencies in their colleagues. The Army even uses a role-playing video game to teach soldiers how to respond to signs of depression.
Numbers Still Low
The small number of troops seen by a mental health professional about 1 in every 90 preparing for deployment is still an increase over the early years of the Iraq war, when about 1 in 300 service members was referred for a mental health evaluation. While that growth has meant thousands of additional evaluations each year, the numbers are still far below military scientists' own estimates of the number of mentally troubled troops.
On the pre-deployment form, about 2.7 percent of troops deploying in 2003 said they had sought mental health care. In 2008 and 2009, that figure jumped to nearly 5 percent. But critics say the screen still fails to identify mentally troubled troops who have not sought mental health care or who are too embarrassed to admit they have.
For soldiers who acknowledge recent mental health care, about 12 percent are now referred for a professional evaluation, up from an average of about 7 percent in early years of the war.
Sullivan, the veterans' advocate, said every soldier with recent mental health care should receive a face-to-face evaluation with a mental health specialist before being given deployment orders and a rifle.
But Kilpatrick, with the Military Health System, said service members with a history of mental health care may have completed their treatment and have no need for a new referral. "Since each individual situation is different, it is up to the provider in discussion with the service member to determine their current medical needs and to make an individual determination," he said.
Related links
Chad Barrett Photos
2006 Courant Investigation: Mentally Unfit To Fight
U.S. Soldier In Iraq Kills 5 Comrades At Stress Clinic
Mental Health Referrals Graphic
Suicides Among Soldiers Graphic
Soldiers who say they have not recently sought mental health care are almost never referred for a professional evaluation. Among those troops, about 1 in 180 were referred for an evaluation in 2008 and this year, though that number has also grown since the beginning of the war, when troops who answered "no" to the mental health care question had a 1-in-1,000 chance of being referred for mental health evaluation.
Sullivan called those figures "shameful" and said sending troops to war without a face-to-face medical and mental health evaluation is akin to knowingly sending an aircraft on a long-range mission with inadequate fuel and ammunition. But because of a shortage of money and doctors, he said, he does not expect the military to improve screening.
"It's a question of supply and demand," Sullivan said. "The demand for mental health care and the demand for medical services for these exams is far higher than the supply of physicians available to conduct these exams and provide treatment."
Pattern of Stability
Congress in 2006 also ordered the military to establish minimum mental health standards for deployment, which led to new Defense Department rules barring the deployment of troops with bipolar or psychotic disorders and requiring that troops with mental health disorders demonstrate a "pattern of stability, without significant symptoms," for at least three months prior to deployment.
Shelby Barrett said her husband had no such pattern of stability as his third deployment approached. "No. Not at all," she said. "Not when the police had to be called here three or four times for domestic issues."
Barrett said her husband lost several friends during earlier combat tours and had become depressed and volatile.
Overall, the military in recent years has deployed fewer service members who reported recent mental health care, with 82 percent deployed in 2008 and 2009, compared to 88 percent in 2005. The overall deployment rate has also declined, but not as sharply.
The pre-deployment data were drawn from a health form filled out by service members in all branches each time they prepare for a combat deployment. The database, with names and other identifying information removed, includes information for more than 2.5 million deployments since the beginning of the wars.
But Kilpatrick said numbers of referrals and deployments don't tell the whole story.
"Looking at a database doesn't reflect the complexity of the overall process," he said. "While we can never say that each and every individual with a mental health condition is identified and treated, we do feel comfortable that the life cycle of assessment and health care delivery is comprehensive."
That does not ease Shelby Barrett's pain, or her anger that the Army did not do more for one of its own.
"My husband was one hell of a soldier. My husband was one hell of a man until his mind couldn't take any more," she said. "And that's the easiest way for me to put it. That's the easiest way for me to make sense of it.
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This is where I will showcase what a blog is and how it can help your PR sales front website grow once you have fully populated the site of around 150 authority pages and how this links to the Blog and E-commerce world. Over the coming months my customers will learn the power of leveraging time sensitive material, against a static but flowing brochure website and how that will sell more products in the long run.
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Where are you from? I'm Clarissa, from Concord My children are grown and in college and now I need someone to spend my free time with. i like the night life just hangin out or going to the club . I think I am doing okay alone. I have one daughter in college, and a toddler. I love to talk and would enjoy company to watch the world go by.
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I don't know which is worse: the fear that a primary life friendship with my partner C is just that, a friendship and not a romance, or hoping against fear that B and I may actually have a future despite signs that suggest otherwise. I do know that living with both unknowns is the most vulnerable, unsettled feeling I've ever experienced.
So this is why I needed to find your blog. I've known I'm not the only one with struggles like these, but never really got it until I spent time with your writing...and that of your readers. I don't feel any better, less lonely, or any different frankly. I do see, however, that I'm not so unique.
I'd ask your advice, but... Well, but nothing. I'll ask: do you have any thoughts for me?
After my first reading of this reader's exceptionally well written email I felt overwhelmed. Just like the poor guy himself, no doubt, because he's suddenly got so many difficult issues in his life. So I sent him an immediate reply, telling him that since it would be a few weeks until I'd be able to post his email, I thought he should get a counselor so that he could start work on everything immediately. Within a day I got his reply:
I'm a step ahead of you. Already have a counselor, a good one. And you're right, his services right now are essential. The other day, in fact, I was discussing with him having to stop, so I could save up cash for an expected move-out. "I can't let you do that," he said. "It would be unethical for me to let you go." So at least I've got that.
Thanks for providing the platform you do, and for your words of counsel. It's clear you're a good man, and I think your blog provides an important voice out there.
It strikes me that this reader has hit a classic mid-life crisis. There's nothing to be ashamed of there, it happens to lots of guys when the natural path from school to college to job and boyfriend peters out, and with potentially more than half one's life left the next step is unclear. Indeed, long time readers here will know that it happened to me too, in connection with ex-boyfriend S.
One puzzling thing here is the originally blasé attitude of C, his boyfriend of 15 years. I can't help wondering whether C is unhappy with their relationship, and might already be prepared to see it end, especially if he doesn't need to take the blame for it ending. Indeed, perhaps he's so relaxed about the situation because he has another lover? If nothing else, C's reaction proves that their current relationship has to change. Even if C doesn't mind having an open relationship with the reader, the possibility of a split after 15 years should have provoked a much stronger reaction. To put it another way, a relationship which can be dissolved so easily isn't much of a relationship anyway!
It's possible that work has turned slightly sour for the reader because of the problems in his personal life, which might be causing him to under-perform somehow. In many jobs, one's only as good as the last project that one worked on, so if a project is badly received by one's colleagues it can it can easily put one out of favour. Of course, work can have a detrimental effect on one's personal life too, but one's boyfriend, friends and family have to be more important than one's work, so my recommendation would be to come to some kind of resolution of those issues first before worrying about work. Indeed, the confidence which the reader should gain if he is able to resolve the issues in his personal life could well help him get back on top of his work again.
The "bed death" phrase is a good one and it's an unsatisfactory situation. If that happens to a couple of guys in a relationship, if their relationship is healthy they should eventually realise that they need to discuss it, and either try and re-invigorate their sex life, open up their relationship, or separate. So without that interaction between the reader and his boyfriend C, I reckon that something like the reader's current crisis was always going to happen eventually. In that sense, there's nothing special about the 'personal trainer' B, he just happens to be the guy that's triggered what would always have happened anyway.
I find it hard to tell from the reader's description of the break-up what B's intentions really were, but it doesn't sound like their relationship is going anywhere. From the reader's description of the current situation between him and B, I reckon that it'll be hard to re-ignite their combustible passion. Even so the reader has much to thank B for, because he's been the catalyst for the reader to realise that there are unspoken issues in his relationship with his boyfriend C that need to be resolved one way or the other. On top of that, B's also proved to the reader that he's still a very marketable commodity, should he need to find another boyfriend at some point.
So I reckon that the fundamental issue that needs focus is the reader's relationship with C. There are issues there that need to be resolved, one way or the other. Indeed, the resolution of the issues in his existing relationship should naturally point the way in terms of resolving all the other issues. And regarding B, it could well be that he won't be very important going forward.
Do any other readers have any thoughts in this situation.
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I recently cleared ITIL with a 100% and thought I would share some of the sample exam paper.
Hope you would find it useful.
Please subscribe to the blog and visit often as there will be more sample papers posted
QUESTION :1 Which of the following questions does guidance in Service Strategy help answer?
1: What services should we offer and to whom?
2: How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?
3: How do we truly create value for our customers?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION :2. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Service Design Manager?
A.Design and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B.Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes
or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisation
C.Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service
designs that are produced
D.Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Answer: A
QUESTION :3. Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures?
1: Customer retention
2: Time to market
3: Service Architecture
4: Market share
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.All of the above
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: D
QUESTION :4. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is part of which process?
TestInside EX0-101
A.Service Portfolio Management
B.Service Level Management
C.Component Capacity Management
D.Demand Management
Answer: D
QUESTION :5. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
A.To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
B.To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C.To create and populate a Service Catalogue
D.To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Answer: D
QUESTION :6. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1: Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
2: Designing technology architectures to support the service
3: Ensuring required contracts and agreements are in place
A.All of the above
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.1 and 3 only
Answer: D
QUESTION :7. Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of Service Level Management?
A.Customer satisfaction score
B.Average number of daily Incidents managed by each service agent
C.Number of services in the Service Portfolio
D.Number of services deployed within agreed times
Answer: A
TestInside EX0-101
QUESTION :8. Major Incidents require:
A.Separate procedures
B.Less urgency
C.Longer timescales
D.Less documentation
Answer: A
QUESTION :9. Which of the following should be done when closing an Incident?
1: Check the Incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2: Decide whether a Problem needs to be logged
A.1 only
B.Both of the above
C.2 only
D.None of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION :10. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?
A.To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B.To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C.To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D.To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
Answer: B
QUESTION :11. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process?
A.The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media)
B.Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-defined approval and
qualification process exists
C.Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for
obtaining them
D.Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
Answer: D
QUESTION :12. How many numbered steps are in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process?
A.7
B.4
C.6
D.11
Answer: A
QUESTION :13. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?
A.Network Management and Application Management
B.Technical Management and Application Management
C.IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D.Facilities Management and Technical Management
Answer: C
QUESTION :14. The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the Service Lifecycle. Which of the following
statements about the ITIL COMPLEMENTARY guidance is CORRECT?
A.It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle
B.It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
C.It consists of five publications
D.It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000
Answer: B
QUESTION :15. Which of the following should be supported by technology?
1: Verification of Configuration Management System (CMS) data
2: Control of user desk-tops
3: Creation and use of diagnostic scripts
4: Visibility of overall IT Service performance
A.2, 3 and 4 only
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION :16. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
A.Knowledge
B.Information
C.Wisdom
D.Data
Answer: C
QUESTION :17. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are:
A.Carried out by Service Operations
B.Carried out by lots of people
C.Critical to the success of the business mission
D.Simple and well understood
Answer: D
QUESTION :18. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operation
phase of the Lifecycle?
1: Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged
2: Control of user desk-top PCs
3: Create and use diagnostic scripts
4: Dashboard type technology
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION :19. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
A.Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)
B.Customer and User satisfaction
C.Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
D.Utility and Warranty
Answer: D
QUESTION :20. What is the Service Pipeline?
A.All services that are at a conceptual or development stage, or are undergoing testing
B.All services except those that have been retired
C.All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D.All complex multi-user services
Answer: A
QUESTION :21. What are the types of activity within Demand Management?
A.Activity based, Access Management
B.Activity based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
C.Analytical based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
D.Analytical based, Shaping user behaviour
Answer: B
QUESTION :22. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A.To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
B.To provide training and certification in project management
C.To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
D.To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a Release
Answer: B
QUESTION :23. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A.A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and
protected
C.A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected
Answer: B
QUESTION :24. One organisation provides and manages an entire business process or function for another
organisation. This is know as:
A.Business Process Management
B.Business Function Outsourcing
C.Business Process Outsourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
Answer: C
QUESTION :25. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A.Service Catalogue Management
B.Service Level Management
C.IT Service Continuity Management
D.Capacity Management
Answer: D
QUESTION :26. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation?
A.To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B.To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C.To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D.To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
Answer: D
QUESTION :27. Availability Management is responsible for availability the of:
A.Services and Components
B.Services and Business Processes
C.Components and Business Processes
D.Services, Components and Business Processes
Answer: A
QUESTION :28. Which of the following is a sub-process of Capacity Management?
A.Component Capacity Management
B.Process Capacity Management
C.Technology Capacity Management
D.Capability Capacity Management
Answer: A
QUESTION :29. The group that authorises Changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the:
A.Technical Management
B.Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
C.Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D.Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: B
QUESTION :30. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?
A.To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will
accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
B.To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service
components that are compatible with each other
C.To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled
or backed out if appropriate
D.To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
Answer: A
QUESTION :31. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A.Prepare for action
B.Define what you should measure
C.Where are we now?
D.Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
Answer: B
QUESTION :32. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?
A.Application Management
B.Service Desk
C.Incident Management
D.Technical Management
Answer: C
QUESTION :33. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?
A.A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact
B.A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
C.A dedicated number of staff answering questions from users
D.A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests
Answer: D
QUESTION :34. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk?
1: Logging details of Incidents and service requests
2: Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3: Restoring service
4: Diagnosing the root-cause of problems
A.All of the above
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION :35. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre?
A.Technical Management
B.Service Desk
C.IT Operations Control
D.Facilities Management
Answer: D
QUESTION :36. Governance is concerned with:
A.Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes
B.Ensuring that defined strategy is actually followed
C.Reducing the total cost of providing services
D.Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met
Answer: B
QUESTION :37. A risk is:
A.Something that won't happen
B.Something that will happen
C.Something that has happened
D.Something that might happen
Answer: D
QUESTION :38. Which of the following BEST describes when a Known Error record should be raised?
A.A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has been found
B.A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would be useful to do so
C.As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be found
D.Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all actions is retained in case
of a recurrence
Answer: B
QUESTION :39. IT Operations Management have been asked by a customer to carry out a non-standard activity,
that will cause them to miss an agreed service level target. How should they respond?
A.Refuse the request because they must operate the service to meet the agreed service levels
B.Make a decision based on balancing stability and responsiveness
C.Accept the request as they must support customer business outcomes
D.They should escalate this decision to Service Strategy
Answer: B
QUESTION :40. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Portfolio Management
C.Service Asset and Configuration Management
D.Incident Management
Answer: C
QUESTION :41. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
A.The RACI Model
B.A Release Package
C.A Request Model
D.The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
Answer: B
QUESTION :42. Which of the following might be used to define how a future Problem or Incident could be managed?
1: Incident Model
2: Known Error Record
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION :43. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A.Demand Management
B.Incident Management
C.Release and Deployment Management
D.Request Fulfilment
Answer: D
QUESTION :44. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organisation?
A.The Service Level Manager
B.The Business Relationship Manager
C.The Service Owner
D.The Service Continuity Manager
Answer: C
QUESTION :45. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A.Overall business risk is optimised
B.Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
C.All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management
System (CMS)
D.All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
Answer: D
QUESTION :46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A.The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B.The design of new or changed services
C.The design of Market Spaces
D.The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: C
QUESTION :47. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service solutions. Which of the
following does this include?
A.Only capabilities needed and agreed
B.Only resources and capabilities needed
C.Only requirements needed and agreed
D.Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
Answer: D
QUESTION :48. Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix?
A.Configuration
B.Consulted
C.Complex
D.Controlled
Answer: B
QUESTION :49. What is a RACI model used for?
A.Performance analysis
B.Recording Configuration Items
C.Monitoring services
D.Defining roles and responsibilities
Answer: D
QUESTION :50. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organisational structure?
A.RACI Model
B.Service Model
C.Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
D.Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Answer: A
QUESTION :51. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
Answer: B
QUESTION :52. Which of the following delivery strategies is described as, "Formal arrangements between two
or more organisations to work together to design, develop, transition, maintain, operate and/or support IT services"?
A.Outsourcing
B.Application Service Provision
C.Multi-sourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
TestInside EX0-101
Answer: C
QUESTION :53. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A.Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
B.Report; Manage; Improve; Extend
C.Manage; Monitor; Diagnose; Intervene
D.Plan; Predict; Report; Justify
Answer: A
QUESTION :54. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during
Release and Deployment?
A.Early Life Support
B.Service Test Manager
C.Evaluation
D.Release Packaging and Build Manager
Answer: A
QUESTION :55. What does a service always deliver to customers?
A.Applications
B.Infrastructure
C.Value
D.Resources
Answer: C
QUESTION :56. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
A.The Service Provider
B.The Service Level Manager
C.The Customer
D.Resources
Answer: A
QUESTION :57. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A.Service Design
B.Service Transition
C.Service Strategy
D.Service Operation
Answer: C
QUESTION :58. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
A.Change Management
B.Service Transition
C.Service Strategy
D.Service Design
Answer: D
QUESTION :59. Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition could provide to the business?
1: Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements
2: Reduced cost to design new services
3: Improved success in implementing changes
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.All the above
Answer: C
QUESTION :60. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A.A Change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B.A Change that correctly follows the required Change process
C.A pre-authorised Change that has an accepted and established procedure
D.A Change that is made as the result of an audit
Answer: C
QUESTION :61. Which of the following are activities that would be carried out by Supplier Management?
1: Management and review of Organisational Level Agreements (OLAs)
2: Evaluation and selection of suppliers
3: Ongoing management of suppliers
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.All of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION :62. Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 Step Improvement Process apply to?
A.Service Operation
B.Service Transition and Service Operation
C.Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation
D.Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
Answer: D
QUESTION :63. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change Management?
A.A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B.A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C.A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change
D.A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
Answer: A
QUESTION :64. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be caused by:
1: An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an unauthorized Configuration
Item (CI) being detected on the network
2: Normal operation, such as a user logging into an application or an email reaching its intended recipient
A.2 only
B.1 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION :65. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management?
A.A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B.A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together
for a common purpose
C.The management of functions within an organisation to perform certain activities
D.Units of organisations with roles to perform certain activities
Answer: A
QUESTION :66. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners
Answer: C
QUESTION :67. "Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services".
These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers
Answer: B
QUESTION :68. The left-hand side of the Service V Model represents requirements and specifications.
What does the right-hand side of the Service V Model represent?
A.Validation and Testing
B.The business value that can be expected from a given service
C.Performance and capacity requirements of services and IT infrastructure
D.Roles and responsibilities required for an effective Service Management implementation
Answer: A
QUESTION :69. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started
to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A.Extreme focus on cost
B.Extreme focus on quality
C.Excessively proactive
D.Excessively reactive
Answer: A
QUESTION :70. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1: What is the vision?
2: Where are we now?
3: Where do we want to be?
4: How do we get there?
5: Did we get there?
6: ?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?
Answer: C
QUESTION :71. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct
sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
1: Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives
2: Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved
3: Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI
4: Implement CSI enhancement
A.3-1-2-4
B.3-4-2-1
C.1-3-2-4
D.2-3-4-1
Answer: A
QUESTION :72. Which activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) Model?
A.Implementing service and process improvements
B.Aligning the business and IT strategies
C.Creating a baseline
D.
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QUESTION :1 Which of the following questions does guidance in Service Strategy help answer?
1: What services should we offer and to whom?
2: How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?
3: How do we truly create value for our customers?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION :2. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Service Design Manager?
A.Design and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B.Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes
or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisation
C.Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service
designs that are produced
D.Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Answer: A
QUESTION :3. Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures?
1: Customer retention
2: Time to market
3: Service Architecture
4: Market share
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.All of the above
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: D
QUESTION :4. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is part of which process?
TestInside EX0-101
A.Service Portfolio Management
B.Service Level Management
C.Component Capacity Management
D.Demand Management
Answer: D
QUESTION :5. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
A.To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
B.To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C.To create and populate a Service Catalogue
D.To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Answer: D
QUESTION :6. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1: Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
2: Designing technology architectures to support the service
3: Ensuring required contracts and agreements are in place
A.All of the above
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.1 and 3 only
Answer: D
QUESTION :7. Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of Service Level Management?
A.Customer satisfaction score
B.Average number of daily Incidents managed by each service agent
C.Number of services in the Service Portfolio
D.Number of services deployed within agreed times
Answer: A
TestInside EX0-101
QUESTION :8. Major Incidents require:
A.Separate procedures
B.Less urgency
C.Longer timescales
D.Less documentation
Answer: A
QUESTION :9. Which of the following should be done when closing an Incident?
1: Check the Incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2: Decide whether a Problem needs to be logged
A.1 only
B.Both of the above
C.2 only
D.None of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION :10. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?
A.To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B.To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C.To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D.To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
Answer: B
QUESTION :11. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process?
A.The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media)
B.Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-defined approval and
qualification process exists
C.Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for
obtaining them
D.Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
Answer: D
QUESTION :12. How many numbered steps are in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process?
A.7
B.4
C.6
D.11
Answer: A
QUESTION :13. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?
A.Network Management and Application Management
B.Technical Management and Application Management
C.IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D.Facilities Management and Technical Management
Answer: C
QUESTION :14. The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the Service Lifecycle. Which of the following
statements about the ITIL COMPLEMENTARY guidance is CORRECT?
A.It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle
B.It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
C.It consists of five publications
D.It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000
Answer: B
QUESTION :15. Which of the following should be supported by technology?
1: Verification of Configuration Management System (CMS) data
2: Control of user desk-tops
3: Creation and use of diagnostic scripts
4: Visibility of overall IT Service performance
A.2, 3 and 4 only
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION :16. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
A.Knowledge
B.Information
C.Wisdom
D.Data
Answer: C
QUESTION :17. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are:
A.Carried out by Service Operations
B.Carried out by lots of people
C.Critical to the success of the business mission
D.Simple and well understood
Answer: D
QUESTION :18. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operation
phase of the Lifecycle?
1: Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged
2: Control of user desk-top PCs
3: Create and use diagnostic scripts
4: Dashboard type technology
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION :19. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
A.Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)
B.Customer and User satisfaction
C.Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
D.Utility and Warranty
Answer: D
QUESTION :20. What is the Service Pipeline?
A.All services that are at a conceptual or development stage, or are undergoing testing
B.All services except those that have been retired
C.All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D.All complex multi-user services
Answer: A
QUESTION :21. What are the types of activity within Demand Management?
A.Activity based, Access Management
B.Activity based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
C.Analytical based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
D.Analytical based, Shaping user behaviour
Answer: B
QUESTION :22. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A.To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
B.To provide training and certification in project management
C.To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
D.To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a Release
Answer: B
QUESTION :23. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A.A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and
protected
C.A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected
Answer: B
QUESTION :24. One organisation provides and manages an entire business process or function for another
organisation. This is know as:
A.Business Process Management
B.Business Function Outsourcing
C.Business Process Outsourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
Answer: C
QUESTION :25. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A.Service Catalogue Management
B.Service Level Management
C.IT Service Continuity Management
D.Capacity Management
Answer: D
QUESTION :26. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation?
A.To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B.To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C.To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D.To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
Answer: D
QUESTION :27. Availability Management is responsible for availability the of:
A.Services and Components
B.Services and Business Processes
C.Components and Business Processes
D.Services, Components and Business Processes
Answer: A
QUESTION :28. Which of the following is a sub-process of Capacity Management?
A.Component Capacity Management
B.Process Capacity Management
C.Technology Capacity Management
D.Capability Capacity Management
Answer: A
QUESTION :29. The group that authorises Changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the:
A.Technical Management
B.Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
C.Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D.Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: B
QUESTION :30. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?
A.To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will
accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
B.To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service
components that are compatible with each other
C.To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled
or backed out if appropriate
D.To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
Answer: A
QUESTION :31. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A.Prepare for action
B.Define what you should measure
C.Where are we now?
D.Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
Answer: B
QUESTION :32. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?
A.Application Management
B.Service Desk
C.Incident Management
D.Technical Management
Answer: C
QUESTION :33. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?
A.A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact
B.A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
C.A dedicated number of staff answering questions from users
D.A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests
Answer: D
QUESTION :34. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk?
1: Logging details of Incidents and service requests
2: Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3: Restoring service
4: Diagnosing the root-cause of problems
A.All of the above
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION :35. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre?
A.Technical Management
B.Service Desk
C.IT Operations Control
D.Facilities Management
Answer: D
QUESTION :36. Governance is concerned with:
A.Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes
B.Ensuring that defined strategy is actually followed
C.Reducing the total cost of providing services
D.Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met
Answer: B
QUESTION :37. A risk is:
A.Something that won't happen
B.Something that will happen
C.Something that has happened
D.Something that might happen
Answer: D
QUESTION :38. Which of the following BEST describes when a Known Error record should be raised?
A.A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has been found
B.A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would be useful to do so
C.As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be found
D.Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all actions is retained in case
of a recurrence
Answer: B
QUESTION :39. IT Operations Management have been asked by a customer to carry out a non-standard activity,
that will cause them to miss an agreed service level target. How should they respond?
A.Refuse the request because they must operate the service to meet the agreed service levels
B.Make a decision based on balancing stability and responsiveness
C.Accept the request as they must support customer business outcomes
D.They should escalate this decision to Service Strategy
Answer: B
QUESTION :40. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Portfolio Management
C.Service Asset and Configuration Management
D.Incident Management
Answer: C
QUESTION :41. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
A.The RACI Model
B.A Release Package
C.A Request Model
D.The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
Answer: B
QUESTION :42. Which of the following might be used to define how a future Problem or Incident could be managed?
1: Incident Model
2: Known Error Record
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION :43. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A.Demand Management
B.Incident Management
C.Release and Deployment Management
D.Request Fulfilment
Answer: D
QUESTION :44. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organisation?
A.The Service Level Manager
B.The Business Relationship Manager
C.The Service Owner
D.The Service Continuity Manager
Answer: C
QUESTION :45. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A.Overall business risk is optimised
B.Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
C.All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management
System (CMS)
D.All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
Answer: D
QUESTION :46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A.The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B.The design of new or changed services
C.The design of Market Spaces
D.The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: C
QUESTION :47. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service solutions. Which of the
following does this include?
A.Only capabilities needed and agreed
B.Only resources and capabilities needed
C.Only requirements needed and agreed
D.Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
Answer: D
QUESTION :48. Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix?
A.Configuration
B.Consulted
C.Complex
D.Controlled
Answer: B
QUESTION :49. What is a RACI model used for?
A.Performance analysis
B.Recording Configuration Items
C.Monitoring services
D.Defining roles and responsibilities
Answer: D
QUESTION :50. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organisational structure?
A.RACI Model
B.Service Model
C.Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
D.Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Answer: A
QUESTION :51. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
Answer: B
QUESTION :52. Which of the following delivery strategies is described as, "Formal arrangements between two
or more organisations to work together to design, develop, transition, maintain, operate and/or support IT services"?
A.Outsourcing
B.Application Service Provision
C.Multi-sourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
TestInside EX0-101
Answer: C
QUESTION :53. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A.Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
B.Report; Manage; Improve; Extend
C.Manage; Monitor; Diagnose; Intervene
D.Plan; Predict; Report; Justify
Answer: A
QUESTION :54. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during
Release and Deployment?
A.Early Life Support
B.Service Test Manager
C.Evaluation
D.Release Packaging and Build Manager
Answer: A
QUESTION :55. What does a service always deliver to customers?
A.Applications
B.Infrastructure
C.Value
D.Resources
Answer: C
QUESTION :56. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
A.The Service Provider
B.The Service Level Manager
C.The Customer
D.Resources
Answer: A
QUESTION :57. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A.Service Design
B.Service Transition
C.Service Strategy
D.Service Operation
Answer: C
QUESTION :58. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
A.Change Management
B.Service Transition
C.Service Strategy
D.Service Design
Answer: D
QUESTION :59. Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition could provide to the business?
1: Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements
2: Reduced cost to design new services
3: Improved success in implementing changes
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.All the above
Answer: C
QUESTION :60. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A.A Change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B.A Change that correctly follows the required Change process
C.A pre-authorised Change that has an accepted and established procedure
D.A Change that is made as the result of an audit
Answer: C
QUESTION :61. Which of the following are activities that would be carried out by Supplier Management?
1: Management and review of Organisational Level Agreements (OLAs)
2: Evaluation and selection of suppliers
3: Ongoing management of suppliers
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.All of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION :62. Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 Step Improvement Process apply to?
A.Service Operation
B.Service Transition and Service Operation
C.Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation
D.Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
Answer: D
QUESTION :63. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change Management?
A.A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B.A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C.A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change
D.A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
Answer: A
QUESTION :64. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be caused by:
1: An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an unauthorized Configuration
Item (CI) being detected on the network
2: Normal operation, such as a user logging into an application or an email reaching its intended recipient
A.2 only
B.1 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION :65. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management?
A.A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B.A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together
for a common purpose
C.The management of functions within an organisation to perform certain activities
D.Units of organisations with roles to perform certain activities
Answer: A
QUESTION :66. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners
Answer: C
QUESTION :67. "Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services".
These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers
Answer: B
QUESTION :68. The left-hand side of the Service V Model represents requirements and specifications.
What does the right-hand side of the Service V Model represent?
A.Validation and Testing
B.The business value that can be expected from a given service
C.Performance and capacity requirements of services and IT infrastructure
D.Roles and responsibilities required for an effective Service Management implementation
Answer: A
QUESTION :69. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started
to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A.Extreme focus on cost
B.Extreme focus on quality
C.Excessively proactive
D.Excessively reactive
Answer: A
QUESTION :70. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1: What is the vision?
2: Where are we now?
3: Where do we want to be?
4: How do we get there?
5: Did we get there?
6: ?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?
Answer: C
QUESTION :71. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct
sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
1: Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives
2: Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved
3: Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI
4: Implement CSI enhancement
A.3-1-2-4
B.3-4-2-1
C.1-3-2-4
D.2-3-4-1
Answer: A
QUESTION :72. Which activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) Model?
A.Implementing service and process improvements
B.Aligning the business and IT strategies
C.Creating a baseline
D.
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"Three New Sites in the Eastern Corinthia”
William R. Caraher, University of North Dakota
David K. Pettegrew, Messiah College
Delivered at the 110th Annual Meeting of the Archaeological Institute of America
Philadelphia, PA January 9, 2009
Introduction
Over the last several decades, regional programs of archaeological research have populated the Greek countryside with Classical and Hellenistic farmsteads, buildings, monuments, and places associated with the ephemeral activities of rural life [SLIDE]. Among the most debated type of site are rural towers which have been variously interpreted as storage facilities for farmsteads, communication beacons, local strongholds, and even slave quarters. If little consensus has emerged regarding their function in the Greek countryside, it is because even modest variation in form and context can indicate major differences in the function of these installations. The best way forward in interpreting the function of these buildings [SLIDE] is to make arguments based on a refined understanding of their local historical, archaeological, and topographical contexts.
Our paper today seeks to place a series of three newly discovered rural installations in the Eastern Korinthia into their local context [SLIDE]. The sites are Ano Vayia, Lychnari, and Kato Vayia and were first discovered in 2003 during the course of the Eastern Korinthia Archaeological Survey. With the continued support of the project's directors and with a study permit provided by the Ephoria of Classical Antiquities, we returned to the sites in 2008 to document the visible architecture and to study the ceramic artifacts collected in previous seasons. While our analysis of these towers should contribute to the broader discussion of the significance and function of the rural installations, our principal aim of this paper is to provide specific information on the Late Classical and Hellenistic landscape of the Eastern Corinthia. [SLIDE] Despite two decades of intensive regional survey throughout the Corinthia, the coastal zone of the Eastern Corinthia south of the modern town of Loutro Elenis and north of the harbor of Korphos has been largely overlooked. Recent work in this microregion has produced a dynamic landscape of agriculturally productive land, mountain passes, and small harbors occupied at least as early as the Bronze Age. The presence of Classical-Hellenistic rural buildings in this area suggests that it was a significant component of the Corinthian chora.
Topography of the Vayia/Lychnari Area
The importance of this area for the city of Corinth lies in its place within communication and travel networks between the Isthmus and the Epidauria. The rocky spine of Mt. Oneion forms the dramatic southern boundary to the flat plain of the Corinthian Isthmus [SLIDE], stretching from the imposing rock of Acrokorinth to the harbor town of Kenchreai in the east. To move south along the eastern coast of the Korinthia, avoiding both Corinth and the fortifications near Kenchreai, required crossing Mt. Oneion through several passes fortified during the Late Classical period. Once south of the mountain there were several routes through the mountainous country of the southeastern Korinthia. [SLIDE] These routes provided access to cultivatable valleys and unfortified settlements, roads west into the Argolid and south into the Epidauria, and several ancient embayments.
The bay of Lychnari is one of the best natural inlets on the rugged coast of the Eastern Corinthia [SLIDE]. While no evidence for ancient harbor works has been found there, its sheltered aspect and relatively flat beach would have been well-suited for ancient ships. The peninsula known as Vayia shields the small bay from the east and the rocky hilltop of Lychnari protects the bay below from the western wind. Lychnari Bay opens inland onto a relatively broad valley bounded to the north by the coastal ridge and to the south by the abrupt mountains of the Corinthian interior. [SLIDE] The valley bottom provides relatively easy passage from the vicinity of Lychnari bay and the nearby village of Katakali northwestward to the low hills south of Oneion, where are today the modern villages of Almyri, Loutro Elenis, and Galataki, and in antiquity, the settlement of Solygeia. Further north, passing over the low hill of Stanotopi, is the Isthmus of Corinth and the harbor town of Kenchreai.
Immediately to the east of Lychnari, a small, pebbly beach sits at the mouth of the seasonal Vayia river. [SLIDE]. Walking inland from this beach, it is easy to turn west toward Lychnari bay over the low northern end of the Vayia peninsula. An ascent up the steep, but not unmanageable southern bank of the Vayia River affords access to a high pass that runs southward below the coastal height of Kakia Rachi. [SLIDE] This pass leads to the bay of Frangolimano whence a traveler can proceed inland, past the fortified Classical site of Ay. Paraskevi and onward toward the valley of Sophiko and the Epidauria beyond. Remains in the Vayia Area
Architectural Remains
The most extensive remains in the region of Lychnari and Vayia stand atop the hill that we have called Ano Vayia to distinguish it from the site of Kato Vayia below [SLIDE]. The remains consist of a long, north-south oriented complex constructed of rough polygonal masonry. Its most imposing feature is its western wall which is preserved to a height of over 1 m [SLIDE]. In several places along the course of the wall, it is clear that the builders cut back bedrock to form a solid base for the building [SLIDE]. At its midway point, there is a gap in the wall of slightly over 2 m where the bedrock was trimmed back [SLIDE]. This gap, which divides our complex into northern and southern structures, presumably represents an entrance to an east-west corridor between the different parts of the building. The corridor runs eastward to the foundation of a round tower [SLIDE]. The lowest course of the tower remains in situ and suggests a structure with a diameter of 6.2 m. The carefully-coursed stones preserved roughly-cut, curved profiles on their outer faces. A considerable quantity of similarly curved stones are scattered down the eastern side of the hill. The round tower is clearly a component of the rest of the compound but the exact architectural relationship is unclear. Distributional Data
In conjunction with the initial planning of the site, members of the Eastern Korinthia Archaeological Survey conducted a small-scale, highly localized, intensive pedestrian survey of the Ano Vayia hill [SLIDE]. Unsurprisingly, this survey established that the densest concentration of material occurred around the architecture present on the top of the hill with dramatically declining densities further down the slope. The units immediately adjacent to the collapsed buildings showed artifact densities of nearly 2,000 artifacts per hectare which were comparable to the generally high artifact density that EKAS documented across the busy Corinthian Isthmus. It seems probable that the material in the immediate vicinity of the collapsed buildings represents a distinct and localized phenomenon in the landscape.
Ceramic Finds
Aside from a small number of Late Medieval and Early Modern sherds, the ceramic assemblage at Ano Vayia dates to the Late Classical-Early Hellenistic period. The most common class of artifacts present are slipped Laconian and Corinthian roof tiles [SLIDE]. These tiles were present not only on the surface of the ground around the buildings, but amidst the tumble on the interior of the structures, and indicate that at least part of the structure was roofed. The different kinds of roof tiles, as well as visible repairs to the north wall of the south structure, suggest distinct episodes of construction at the complex.
In addition to the tiles, there are numerous pithos sherds [SLIDE] and, less commonly, Corinthian B and A amphora sherds and Classical-Hellenistic cooking wares. The scatter is almost completely utilitarian nature. The pithos and amphora sherds, in particular, suggest that storage was a priority at the site. The paucity of kitchen ware and the absence of fine wares suggest that the occupation of the building atop Ano Vayia was relatively short term or at least not very intensive. Fine wares and kitchen wares are far less common in use assemblages than amphoras and storage wares, and typically appear only after occupations of considerable length or intensity.
Lychnari Tower
The second major site documented by the Eastern Korinthia Archaeological Survey lies on the hill of Lychnari immediately to the north of the bay with the same name [SLIDE]. On its eastern side some 20 m to the southeast of the geodetic marker are the remains of another round tower. Like the fortifications at Ano Vayia, the tower is coursed, rough polygonal in construction and includes stones of massive size. The walls are relatively very well-preserved [SLIDE]. The outer face is traceable for two-thirds of its circuit producing a tower of over 8 meters in diameter with walls over 1 m in width. [SLIDE] While today the remains stand only 1.5 m in height, Young’s informal estimate of heights for these towers suggest that their height could be 2 – 2.5 times their diameter. If this is even a rough indicator, the tower may have stood to over 15 meters in height. The tower at Lychnari can be dated to the Classical to Hellenistic period on the basis of pottery imbedded in the tumble of the building and scattered around the general area. The assemblage, which was not documented intensively, included pithoi, amphoras, and painted Corinthian tile fragments. This material is consistent with the rough-polygonal masonry and date the structure within a significant margin of reliability. We observed only one later ceramic fragment, an early Roman lamp fragment dating to the 1st-2nd century AD, found in the vicinity of the tower. The Remains Near Vayia
The final group of remains likely datable to the Late Classical – Hellenistic period stand on the peninsula of Vayia proper which projects northwestward into the Saronic Gulf and shelters the eastern side of the harbor of Lychnari [SLIDE]. The remains on the peninsula are poorly preserved so it is not possible to determine its complete plan. They exist amidst a scatter of ceramic material that is very similar to the utilitarian and coarse material found around Ano Vayia and the tower at Lychnari. Moreover, the rubble construction style is similar to the fortifications documented at both Stanotopi and by this author on the heights of Mt. Oneion.
The most clearly defined features at Vayia are a series of long rubble walls and extensive piles of tumble [SLIDE]. The best preserved wall runs for close to 40 m from southeast to northwest, curving slightly to follow the natural contours of the peninsula and bounding the western side of the level area along the top of the Vayia ridge. This wall is constructed of unworked, local grey limestone stacked in irregular courses to form two faces approximately 1 m apart, with cobble fill between the faces. [SLIDE] There are several square rooms that project into the interior of this rubble enceinte. While it is nearly impossible to offer a definitive interpretation of this complex of walls on the Vayia peninsula, the uniformity of the ceramics associated with the structures and the extensive system of rubble walls recommends a fortification of the Classical – Hellenistic period. The closest analogy in the Corinthia for this kind of informal construction are the walls on Stantopi and Oneion which are similarly constructed of rubble masonry and situated atop strategically significant heights. Discussion: Function, Topography, and History
Recent scholarship has associated isolated rural towers in the countryside with economic purposes such as agricultural storage, fortified farmsteads, and quarters for slaves involved in mining endeavors.
At present, we see several reasons for concluding that the sites in the vicinity of Lychnari bay functioned chiefly to protect this agriculturally rich and strategically significant stretch of the Corinthian countryside [SLIDE]. First, the position of the Lychnari and Ano Vayia towers at the highest points in their landscape encourage us to understand these structures as military installations guarding the travel and transportation corridors through the region. The Lychnari tower sits on the far western side of the Lychnari hill and was positioned to overlook Lychnari Bay and the north coast of the Corinthia rather than the agricultural lands extending to the east below. The Ano Vayia tower overlooked the pass from Frangolimano as well as the Vayia River valley rather than the agricultural land to its south and east. The towers are intervisible and would have provided good views to all major routes by land and sea.
Second, these towers were also clearly visible both from the land routes through the region and from the Saronic Gulf. If the function of these towers were only for local land owners to protect their human or material property, one can imagine less obvious locations that would provide similar views toward the land and sea but without being so prominent in the landscape.
A third and final piece of evidence is that none of these three sites produces the variety of ceramics that would be consistent with longer-term habitation. Certainly the Lychnari and the Ano Vayia tower may have supported habitation (in addition to military functions), but the dearth of kitchen wares and fine wares at least suggests that occupation of these towers was on the low-investment and short-term end of the spectrum. We can contrast the rather bare-bones ceramic assemablage of these three sites with the typical Classical-Hellenistic assemblage observed elsewhere, on the Corinthian Isthmus, where amphora, cooking wares, and fine wares are typically found together and in abundance. The utilitarian character of the Vayia and Lynchnari assemblages, when taken together with the evidence from topography outlined above, are more consistent with what we would expect from a fortified garrison than a family farm. It is, of course, possible that further clearing and excavation would reveal a wider diversity of ceramics that could change this interpretation.
Historical evidence for Corinthian fortification during the Classical to Hellenistic period tend to focus on efforts to block military forces from moving through the Isthmus. In general, the various states that sought to fortify the Isthmus were not concerned with defending Corinthian territory, per se. In contrast to these better-known fortifications, the towers in the vicinity of Lychnari did little to protect the Peloponnesus generally [SLIDE]. Armies that bypassed the fortifications along the Isthmus by sea en route to the Peloponnesus avoided the fortifications at Lychnari as well. Consequently, it is logical to read these sites as installations of the either the Corinthian state or even local residents in an effort to fortify its territory. The ease with which an army could pass north from the bay at Lychnari or even Frangolimano into Corinthian chora south of Oneion made the fortification of this stretch of coastline a crucial component of any strategy to protect Corinthian territory. [SLIDE] Unlike the massive trans-isthmian efforts built in response to particular threats, the Corinthians could have built these smaller, regional towers at almost any point over the course of the Classical and Hellenistic period.
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